You’re replying to someone asking if the victim pressed charges in the specific instance you cite. I’m replying to that. What is the disconnect here?
Yes, I understand that you want there to be certain requirements to use recorded footage. That’s not the issue at hand. You implied that an Indian immigrant shouldn’t have to report (or press charges, specifically) an incident, and implied that it should just… magically be prosecuted, I don’t know… that’s what I’m trying to figure out - how do you expect these hypothetical laws to be enforced, if not through the normal channels? Just because something is illegal doesn’t mean that anyone violating that legality is magically, immediately held to account for it. You’re objecting to the already-in-place process for making that happen, so what’s your desired solution?
Edit: To summarize the entire comment chain:
You, in OP: The law should work this way.
Reply: “In the UK, it basically already does.”
You: “Then how was this perceived violation permitted to exist?”
Reply: “Did the victim report it / press charges?”
You: “They can’t / shouldn’t have to do that for these reasons!”