You’re lucky. It’s a term used by conservatives (people who oppose the concept of morality unless it’s where they pretend to have morals in order to commit awful acts against others) to belittle people who think morals aren’t “for fags”
It’s both, you’re mixing different phylogenies. Any alcohol prepared for consumption is a solution of water, ethanol, and various other substances (almost all water or alcohol soluble). Ethanol in aqueous solution is also a strong solvent (pure ethanol is a less effective solvent, but a solvent nonetheless).
Alcohol refers to an alcoholic drink (like the martini held by this sophisticated cat). Water and ethanol (99% of these drinks) are miscible, so are always at least a solution with one another. The additional flavor compounds that make drinks different from one another tend to be in solution as well.
Grammatically, no, because “or” is a coordinating conjunction (for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so), and coordinating conjunctions are a way to join two independent clauses, like a semicolon. They are used after an independent clause and a comma, and they are followed by another coordinating conjunction.
Here’s two independent clauses: I got scratched by a cat. I’m sad.
Here’s a way to join them with a semicolon: I got scratched by a cat; I’m sad. The semicolon replaces the period.
Here’s a way to join them with a coordinating conjunction: I got scratched by a cat, so I’m sad. The , so replaces the semicolon/period.
Note that I got scratched by a cat so, I’m sad is incorrect, because to join two independent clauses, you’re supposed to put the comma first and then the conjunction, in that order. Colloquially, people will often omit the comma entirely, to reflect pronunciation I guess. But as far as I can tell, people don’t generally pronounce a pause between the coordinating conjunction and the following independent clause, so they don’t put a comma there either.
In spanish questions intonation changes occur only on the last word(s), not the whole sentence. I’m not a linguistic, but I think it’s so you can be sure a sentence is a question from the start.
When reading english sometimes I assume a sentence is an affirmation until I see the question mark, and then I have to reinterpret the sentence. I wonder how it is for native english speakers. Do they assume nothing until the sentence is finished?
In English most questions stay flat and only raises the pitch on the last syllable, if any. In Spanish we can raise the pitch on the first word and stay flat for the rest of the question. That’s what’s useful about the ¿
In spanish questions intonation changes occur only on the last word(s), not the whole sentence. I’m not a linguistic, but I think it’s so you can be sure a sentence is a question from the start.
That might be the case in the dialect you’re familiar with, but “¿Me dijiste que no te moleste?” has a different intonation to “Me dijiste que no te moleste.” in my Spanish (starting from “dijiste”).
As for English, questions normally start either with a question word or a (auxiliary) verb, while affirmations normally start with the subject. See “You told me not to bother you.” vs. “Did you tell me not to bother you?”. Using just intonation is possible (“You told me not to bother you?!??”), but when in writing, it’s usually formatted in a way that highlights it because it usually indicates outrage/disbelief.
Interesting. Afaik what determines a question is a higher pitch, so in your sentence I wouldn’t think of the sentence as a question until I hear the intonation of the last word.
Like, toda la oracion puede tener cualquier tono, pero si la última palabra tiene un tono mas agudo (molesteee en vez de moleste) recien cuenta como pregunta.
Me puse a pensar y escuchar conversaciones, fijandome si el tono cambia siempre en la ultima palabra, o en algun otro lado, y en donde vivo (casi) siempre el tono cambia en la ultima palabra, incluso solo la ultima silaba.
Me pregunto si de donde eres toda la oracion (o, desde “dijiste”) el tono es más agudo, o si usan otra forma para diferenciar?
The higher pitch for the entire sentence is another option in my Spanish, but indicates outrage.
The version where you hear it’s supposed to be a question from the word “dijiste” is more of a request for information, like if your mom yelled something and you’re not sure if she said “No me molestes” or “No te sorpreses” or something else that sounds vaguely similar or if she was actually yelling at a fly that was going on her nerves.
The sentence overall becomes more melodic, with the stressed syllables getting a higher pitch and more defined stress.
In Spanish questions are phrased the same way as affirmations, when you are speaking the only difference is the intonation. Without a mark to say you are starting to read a question it’s possible that the meaning changes in the end which would be annoying. (Source: Portuguese is the same but has no inverted question mark, and sometimes it’s mighty annoying, especially with long questions)
Not really. In my language subject and verb get switched around in a question. So you immediately know it’s a question when you start reading the sentence.
Yeah that’s initially why I thought there was no difference to Spanish. But the difference is Spanish actually doesn’t have an option where you switch subject and verb. Didn’t know that :)
É de facto irritante. Nada como estar na escola e um prof pede para ler. Estás calmamente a ler o texto e de repente tens de forçar a porcaria da entoação para sobrecompensar o facto de que não reparaste que era uma pergunta
All have different intonations and punctuation but are otherwise the same. Internet lingo does compensate for this somewhat but at least in “proper” form the above holds true for all kinds of situations
Imagine if you could ask questions like “James, Mary, and Jack went to the market last Saturday to buy a shovel, a black bag, and some gloves, to bury Karen’s corpse in the deep dark woods?”
No no no, James, Mary, and Jack went to the market last Saturday to buy a shovel, a black bag, and some flashlights, to bury Karen’s corpse in the deep dark woods
The border-free zone is called the Schengen area. There are still some EU member states that aren’t included. Euronews article
“Austria has blocked the accession of Romania and Bulgaria into Schengen, the passport-free area that has abolished border checks between the vast majority of EU member states.”
To be fair both the US and EU are a federation of states (the latter sharing aspects of a confederation as well 1. In the US all state borders do look like this, so in a way free travel among the ‘independent’ states is allowed the same as in the posters picture.
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